1940 jew population

JEWS claimed in 1940 that there were a total of 15,290,983 jews in the world, with 9,127,051 in Europe.  The problem is that their own country to country count reports that there were actually only 5,834,565 jews in Europe, plus 4,835,927 in Russia/Ukraine, for a total of 10,670,492 in Europe and Russia/Ukraine.

The nazis never had control over the  4,835,927 jews in Russia/Ukraine, so they could not have included even one of them in their "holocaust of 6 million jews".   And in Europe, the nazis never had control over the territories in which 3,903,118 jews lived, so they too cannot be included in this "holocaust".  Even if the nazis killed 100% of the remaining 1,931,447 jews, where did they get the other 4,068,553 to reach this magic number of 6 million?

And where did the more than THREE MILLION JEWS who claimed war reparations from Germany after WWII come from?

If they were not in the territories controlled by the nazis, then why did they claim war reparations from the Germans whose ancestors ALSO suffered by the nazis, even more severely, and in far greater numbers, than the jews did?  Why aren't these jews who did NOT suffer by the nazis paying war reparations to the descendants of the Germans who DID?

And BEST of all, why did JEWS claim that there were 4% MORE jews in the world after WWII, at the same time that there were 25% FEWER Christians in some European countries?   Didn't Hitler already do the jews a HUGE favor by moving them away from cities like Dresden, Hamburg, and Koln which he KNEW we would bomb, to concentration camps which he knew we would NOT bomb?

If you were a "holocaust survivor", then how could you claim you suffered by the nazis when it was THEY who wasted precious war materiel at the height of the war to ship you OUT of the danger zone.  By what process did 50% MORE jews become victims of the nazis than LIVED in that territory in 1940 in the first place, PLUS see a loss of six million jews?

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