Which of the following two verses do you believe is correct?  Clearly they cannot BOTH be correct:

He said in reply, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." Matthew 15:24

Mark 16:15

And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.

“However, Mark 16:9-20 is absent in other early church fathers (e.g. Clement of Rome, Clement of Alexandria, Origen, Jerome). At any rate, all that can be concluded from this use of the longer ending is that, rightly or wrongly, Mark 16:9-20 had become part of Church tradition and scripture much like other apocryphal writings such as The Shepherd of Hermas and the Didache, neither of which are now considered canonical.”

If by “all the world” and “to every creature”, Jesus meant for His Twelve Disciples to go to NON-Israelites, who were not “appoloumi” sheep of the House of Israel, then how can it be explained that He had such a serious and significant and earth shaking change of mind, or was disingenuous in Matthew 15:24—or LIED?

If the translation is correct, as we read this in modern English, the two verses simply cannot be reconciled without blaspheming Our LORD and Savior Jesus Christ. 

The only conclusion can be that the two Clements, Origen, and Jerome read from the correct version of Matthew 16:15, which means someone, or many, ADDED Mark 16:9-20 later on.

It would be natural to suspect that the “church” added it, as this is the single verse they hang their hat on to justify preaching the gospel to, and thus permitting into the congretation of the LORD, NON-Israelites, who were NOT of the House of Israel, who had NOT been put away for punishment for violation of God’s Law.