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debunks' comments in red, my replies
in blue
I am only posting what Scripture states in respect to these
issues under discussion and what can be reasonably and logically inferred from the text.
debunks, give us a break. 90% of this reply, just as 90% of
all your replies, is your own personal cathoholic twist on Scripture which has no bearing
on reality nor Scriptural truth. This post is chockful full of your own
"law" which doesn't even cite Scripture.
First of all, this passage you refer me to occurs in the opening
phases of Christ's ministry, although the text makes it clear that this was written years
later, for when Matthew lists the names of the disciples, he includes Judas, remarking,
who also betrayed
3860, 2532 him.846 Thus, the commission was given before Judas
betrayed him and before the Jews had rejected the good news of the Gospel.
Your inability to comprehend the difference between a jew and an
Israelite is noted. If you KNEW the difference, you would KNOW how ludicrous the
rest of your reply really is. But, you will NEVER know this, obviously.
The passage you cited is found in , - Matthew 10: 5,6., but the
passage is quite lengthy and leads to surprising revelations-
(Mat 10:5)
These5128 twelve1427 Jesus2424 sent forth,649 and commanded3853
them,846 saying,3004 Go565 not3361 into1519 the way3598 of the Gentiles,1484 and2532
into1519 any
city4172 of the Samaritans4541 enter1525 ye not:3361
(Mat 10:6)
But1161 go4198 rather3123 to4314 the lost622 sheep4263 of the
house3624 of Israel.2474 (Mat 10:7)
And1161 as ye go,4198 preach,2784 saying,3004 The3588 kingdom932
of heaven3772 is at hand.1448
As I pointed out, Christ initially directs them to go to the lost
sheep of the house of Israel, and the passage in question later proves that he was
speaking solely of the Jews-not Edomites or anyone else. He does not specifically say
'only to the lost house of Israel,' but the message is inferred nonetheless, for He says
do not go into the way of the Gentiles nor in any city of the Samaritans, but to the lost
sheep of the house of Israel and preach that the kingdom of heaven is at hand. In other
words, Russ, Jesus is announcing HIS presence to the Jews. The Kingdom of heaven is at
hand through the presence of Jesus Christ.
What He's announcing, debunks, is precisely what He said in Matthew 21:43, that "... The kingdom of God shall be taken away from
you [the evil scumbag Edomite jews], and shall be given to a nation
[ONE nation, the HOUSE OF ISRAEL] bringing forth the fruits thereof". It also
does NOT say "initially directs", as there is NO time limit nor any other
exception or qualification attached to this verse. IF Jesus had intended for this to
be a TEMPORARY condition, THIS is precisely where He would have specified that.
In this FIRST commission to the apostles, He is instructing them
to tell the Jews that the Messiah is HERE and NOW. How can we know this? Because Scripture
itself states it a few lines down!
NO VERSE supports that there was a "first commission"
or "second commission". Jesus did not LIE. Jesus did not
PREVARICATE. Jesus did not CHANGE HIS MIND. Jesus made it plain and clear that
He came ONLY for the House of ISRAEL, and not the House of Judah, because He was following
GOD'S LAW:
And I
will establish my covenant between me and thee [Abraham] and thy seed after thee in their
generations for an everlasting covenant, to be a God unto thee, and to thy seed
after thee. Genesis 17:7
Even of the covenant
which he made with Abraham, and of his oath unto Isaac; And hath confirmed the same to
Jacob for a law, and to Israel for an everlasting covenant, 1 Chronicles 16:16-17
Not even JESUS HIMSELF could
change that, so certainly your "church" and you CANNOT!
There is urgency in the instruction. He tells his disciples not
to provide for their sustenance on the journey, which will be localised and regional. They
are instructed to heal the sick, cleanse the lepers, raise the dead, etc, so that ALL
biological Israel might know of a certainty that the Messiah has arrived.
Hurrah. At least you FINALLY acknowledge that Jesus came
ONLY to "ALL biological Israel". Where you go from here is a CRIME and a
SIN, though.
That Christ is explicitly referring to biological JEWS of all the
houses of Israel is proved by this line which follows:
Mat 10:17 But1161 beware4337 of575 men:444 for1063 they will
deliver you up3860, 5209 to 1519 the councils,4892 and2532 they will scourge3146 you5209
in1722 their848 synagogues;4864
The explicit reference to SYNAGOGUES proves the point.
This proves no such thing. Israelites of the House of
Israel are NOT "jews". The synagogues HAD been built by Israelites, but it
was "jews" who took them over, just as the ISRAELITE woman at the well told us.
The REASON Jesus excluded Judah from His Mission is, just as Jeremiah tells us in
Jeremiah 3:8, it was the House of ISRAEL, not the House of Judah, which had been "put
away", or "divorced" by God. Because there is NO record that God ever
divorced the House of Judah, Jesus didn't need to bring them back to God's Law, as He
needed to bring the House of Israel back to God's Law:
Jeremiah 3:8 And I saw, when for all the
causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a
bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the
harlot also.
Mat 10:18 And2532 ye shall be(1161) brought71 before1909
governors2232 and2532 kings935 for my sake,1752, 1700 for1519 a testimony3142 against
them846 and2532 the3588 Gentiles.1484
These prophecies were fulfilled to the letter! The apostles did
go to the synagogues, were denounced
and then handed over to gentile governors and kings.
You MUST learn what "gentile" means before you ever
discuss Scripture with anyone else, ever again. This is a SIMPLE thing to learn, so
it's inexcusable that you haven't taken the time to do it.
http://fathersmanifesto.net/weiland.htm
Jesus also says this:
(Mat 10:23) And when they shall persecute you in this city, flee
into another. Amen I say to you, you shall not finish all the cities of Israel, till the
Son of man come.
Now what does this mean? It
is not to be understood of his second coming to judgment, but
either of his resurrection from the
dead, when he was declared to be the Son of God, and
when his glorification began;
Jesus was called "son of God" almost 40 times before He
was crucified.
or of the pouring forth of the Spirit at the day of Pentecost,
when his kingdom began more visibly to take place, and he was
made, or manifested to be
the Lord and Christ; or of his coming to take vengeance on his
enemies, that would not have
him to rule over them, and the persecutors of his ministers, at
the destruction of Jerusalem.
Finally, Jesus adds:
(Mat 10:40)
He that receiveth you, receiveth me: and he that receiveth me,
receiveth him that sent me.
Thus, this initial commission was restricted to the lost sheep of
Israel, and served as
a warning to those Israelites who would refuse to heed the
message of the Gospel or
acknowledge the Lord as the true Messiah. A severe judgment is
appended to those who
refuse to acknowledge or hear the word of God.
Here you are quoting Scripture, so we know you read Scripture--so
why did you not quote the simple verse which says "A
severe judgment is appended to those who refuse to acknowledge or hear the word of God"? My understanding of what Jesus said is that this
"severe judgement" would append to those who VIOLATE His COMMANDMENT to go ONLY
to the "put away for sin" sheep of the House of ISRAEL.
Once the Gospel had been preached and all the miracles wrought,
and the Jews persisted
in their disbelief, Christ instructed the apostles and their
appointed successors to thereafter
preach the message of the gospel to ALL nations until His return
in glory.
until th
Jesus said the Kingdom of God would be handed over to A nation,
or ONE race, not "all nations" and not "ALL races"! And He said
that ONE nation was the HOUSE OF ISRAEL!:
Matthew 21:43, that "... The kingdom of God shall be taken away from
you [the evil scumbag Edomite jews], and shall be given to a nation
[ONE nation, the HOUSE OF ISRAEL] bringing forth the fruits thereof".
Were the jews "bringing forth the
fruits thereof"? NO!
Were the Ammonites "bringing forth
the fruits thereof"? NO!
Were the niggers "bringing forth the
fruits thereof"? NO!
Were the Arabs "bringing forth the
fruits thereof"? NO!
Were the Chinks "bringing forth the
fruits thereof"? NO!
Were the Hindus or Shintos or Seiks or
Buddhists "bringing forth the fruits thereof"? NO!
Were the goddess worshipers of South
America, who make up half the cathoholic church, "bringing forth the fruits
thereof"? NO!
Were the Egyptians "bringing forth
the fruits thereof"? NO!
Were the Assyrians "bringing forth
the fruits thereof"? NO!
Were the Iranians or the other 700
million non-Arab Muslims "bringing forth the fruits thereof"? NO!
ONLY THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL HAD DONE THAT!
John Knight
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