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Jacob
It
was the LORD who begat both Isaac and Jacob
There's only one person in the entire Holy Bible who
God refers to as "my firstborn", and it's not Adam,
Noah, Moses, David, Solomon, nor even Jesus:
And thou
shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith the LORD, Israel
is
my son,
even my firstborn:
Exodus
4:22
"My firstborn" is Jacob who "the LORD" renamed to
Israel, and whose descendants are the Israelites of the
Twelve Tribes of Israel, consisting of the House of
Judah and the House of Israel.
Gen 21:1 And
the LORD visited Sarah as he had said, and the LORD
did unto Sarah as he had spoken.
Gen 21:2 For Sarah
conceived, and bore Abraham a son in his old age, at
the set time of which God had spoken to him.
Gen 21:3 And Abraham called
the name of his son that was born unto him, whom
Sarah bore to him, Isaac.
Gen 25:21
And Isaac entreated the LORD for his wife, because
she was
barren: and the LORD was entreated of him, and
Rebekah his wife conceived.
1.
First of all, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob is
NOT the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Esau—because as
"liberals" infer, He would NOT create Esau just so He
could HATE him.
2.
Second of all, the “g-d” [as the jews who’re descendants
of Esau spell it] isn’t even the “god” which GOD told us
NEVER to put before Him [does “You
shall have no other gods before me”
ring a bell for us these days?]
3.
Third of all, the “LORD God” [read: Yehovah Elohim] who
FORMED the second Adam in Genesis 2:7 is NOT the God of
Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob who *begat* Isaac and
Jacob.
4.
Fourth of all, the “LORD God” who FORMED the second Adam
is NOT the “God” [Elohim] who CREATED the fist Adam in
Genesis 1:27, NOR is He the God of Abraham, Isaac, and
Jacob, NOR is He the “g-d” of Esau
5.
Fifth of all [now we’re getting into African territory]
the “God” [Elohim] who MADE niggers [behemah] in Genesis
1:25 is NOT the “God” [Elohim] who CREATED the fist Adam
in Genesis 1:27, is NOT the same God who FORMED the
second Adam in Genesis 2:7, NOR is He the God of
Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob who BEGAT Isaac and Jacob, NOR
is He the “g-d” of Esau.
In ALL of
Scripture, there’s only ONE man who *OUR God*
called “My Firstborn Son”, and that’s Jacob who
"liberals" are so far removed from that they’re
absolutely correct that to they and theirs “God
doesn't exist”!
With as many people as there were on the Earth at the
time "the LORD" impregnated Rebekah, Isaac's wife and
Jacob's surrogate mother, how could "the LORD" consider
Jacob to be "my firstborn"? Weren't all the Adamites
whom God commanded the Israelites to slay, to "leave
alive nothing that breatheth", to "make no covenant
with", to not marry their daughters nor give their sons
to, also descendants, creations, or sons of "the LORD"?
Not if we're reading Exodus 4:22 correctly, they're not.
This would mean that "God" [Elohiym, #430] who "created"
the first man Adam in Genesis 1:25, and "the LORD God" [Yehovah
#3068 and Elohiym #430] who "formed" the last man Adam
in Genesis 2:7 are not the same as "the LORD" [Yehovah
#3068] who claims to be the genetic father of Jacob.
So Israelites were not Adamites, they were a new
creation both through Isaac and Jacob, which explains
why the following two verses refer to "sons of Adam" and
"seed of Adam" as separate and distinct people from the
"ben Israel" [read: sons of Israel]:
Deuteronomy 32:8
When the most High divided to the nations their
inheritance, when he separated the sons of Adam, he
set the bounds of the people according to the number
of the children of Israel.
Jeremiah 31:27 Behold, the days come,
saith the LORD, that I will sow the house of Israel
and the house of Judah with the seed of man, and
with the seed of beast.
It would have been very easy to simply insert the
Hebrew word "sheniy" [#8145], which means "other", in
front of "sons of Adam" in Deuteronomy 32:8 and in front
of "seed of Adam" in Jeremiah 31:27, but this word is
conspicuously absent in both verses. This is far too
important a distinction to attribute to an oversight by
the finger of God, Jeremiah, the translators, or even
the church. This word is missing on purpose, because the
Israelites are not Adamites [neither sons of Adam nor
seed of Adam].
But what about Rebekah, Jacob's mother, being a
Syrian?:
Genesis 25:20
And Isaac was forty years old when he took Rebekah
to wife, the daughter of Bethuel the Syrian of
Padanaram, the sister to Laban the Syrian.
We know that the Israelite lineage is traced through
the father, not the mother, but we also know that
Abraham was very distraught about the possibility of his
sons and grandsons marrying Canaanite women:
Genesis 24:3
And I will make thee swear by the LORD, the God of
heaven, and the God of the earth, that thou shalt
not take a wife unto my son of the daughters of the
Canaanites, among whom I dwell:
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Syrians were pure genetic descendants of Adam, but Canaanites
were half-breed descendants of the relationship between Noah's
wife, who must not have been of the Adamic race, and Canaan:
Genesis 9:25
And he said, Cursed
[be]
Canaan; a servant of servants shall he be unto his brethren.
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So where it's no longer acceptable for an Israelite to marry an
Adamite, "the LORD" did accept a Syrian to be a surrogate mother for
Jacob (and Esau).
While we think of all descendants of Jacob as "Israelites", it was
Jesus who reminded us that "the LORD", Jacob, He Himself, and all
Israelites, are all identified by one single Greek word: "pneuma". The
unfortunate translation of this word into the English word " spirit"
has caused unlimited confusion because of its association with ghosts,
frame of mind, attitude, esprit de corps, and something that lives after
us when the body dies. Furthermore, "pneuma" may also have been used in
reference to things other than this genetic seed line in the New
Testament. So when you see the English words "spirit" and "ghost" in the
New Testament, you need to double check the context to be sure that it's
not a reference to "the LORD"'s progeny.
Entire religions have been built on top of a faulty interpretation of
what Jesus meant when He said:
John 6:63
It
is
the
spirit
that quickeneth;
the
flesh
profiteth
nothing:
the
words
that
I
speak
unto
you,
they
are
spirit,
and
they
are
life.
Judeochristian churches have promoted the notion that "spirit" and
"flesh" are two sides of one Israelite, and that it's only the
"spiritual" side which will "quickeneth" [read: be given life], and that
the flesh side will die. But Jesus clarifies exactly who spirit and
flesh are in the following verse:
John 3:6
That which is begotten
of
the
flesh
is
flesh;
and
that which is begotten
of
the
Spirit
is
spirit.
It's Paul's allegory
which reminds us that it's descendants of Ishmael who are "begotten of
the flesh" and descendants of Jacob who are "begotten of the spirit",
proof that Jesus was merely stating the obvious: only Israelites are
heirs to the everlasting covenant God made with Abraham through Jacob
[given life], and Ishmaelites [and allegorically, all other
non-Israelites] are not.
To further confuse matters, Paul does use this same Greek word "sarx"
from which "flesh" was translated to above to refer to his fellow
Israelites:
For I could wish that myself
were accursed from Christ for my brethren,
my kinsmen
according to the
flesh:
Romans 9:3
Obviously this is exactly the opposite of the meaning Paul developed
in his allegory: one context refers to all non-Israelites, the other
refers only to Israelites. But there is not a third meaning of "sarx"
nor a second meaning of "phneuma" which refer to the state of mind of
Israelites.
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