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Sir David Andrew jew
Dave – after reading your tome of self-praise I think that you are full of
bullshit. The entire heraldry non sense is English puke. You accuse
Richard of being a Mason and then bring up this nonsense of ours. We are
Americans and look down on all of that limey stuff. You mention Barrister,
meaning to me an engineer, that you have never produced a bit of wealth in your
life but have prospered off the hard work of the English people as has the wife
of Tony Blair. That bitch reportedly earned about 250,000 pounds a year
due to influence. For all of you alleged high breeding and education you
call others moron etc. I do not know the ultimate truth of the underlying
matter but I suggest that you try a new approach especially when dealing with
Americans. Russell Walker
From:
SirDavid-Andrew. [mailto:davidtheherald@a-znet.com] Richard, you are a real work of art. What degree of
Masonry do you hold? Are you a Knight of Templar or Knight of Malta?
You are a bamboozle artist. Has anyone noticed that Richard uses verse
from the KJV, which he knows are DELIBERATELY mistranslated to prove his point
and word, which do not have meanings to his liking, he does not give those
definition. I have already stated that I do not wish to become involved in
lengthy endless discussions with those, who regurgitate Luciferian and Zionist
vomit.
Sir David-Andrew.
David-Andrew, et.al.. Note that I have purposely omitted using the title Sir that
you have attached to your name, since its Hebrew and Greek meanings elevate you
to a status to which you are not qualified to assume. Suggest that you see
Strong’s No.113, "Sir", its Hebrew word, Adown or Adon, meaning:
“to rule, soverign, i.e. controller, human or divine, lord, Master”..In
the Greek, No. 2962, it is “Kurios” meaning: “supreme in
authority, as controller, God, Lord, Master”. Qualifications which I cannot
in good faith, attach to your cognomen.
It appears that we are dealing with someone who may be a
bit narcissistic and quarrelsome, so it follows that his critique of an ongoing
discussion about assigning a “sacred name” to God the Father and to His Son,
Jesus the Christ also may exhibit some mistaken views on that subject. Was it God that appeared and insisted on keeping His Name
secret? As we can determine from what Jacob was told in Gen.32 after his
wrestling when he asked his opponent His name and it was not given to him: “. .
.Wherefore is it that thou dost ask after My name? . . .” Now,
would it not have been appropriate for God to have told Jacob what His name was
if He had wanted it to be known? Now lets consider the Hebrew words for those denoted above: “Counselor”, No.3289, “yaats: meaning: to
deliberate, or resolve, advertise, take advice, determine, devise, guide, etc. The other titles or names by which He is “called” are self
explanatory and do not need further elaboration….However, we can see that this
was an opportunity for His “Name” to be revealed, but it was not! Again, no Name is revealed as is commonly sought.
Here is how God then proceeded with this name issue: “Therefore My people
shall know My name: therefore they shall know in that day that I am He that doth
speak, It is I.” Once more we have an opportunity for God to elaborate and
define His name other than His “title.” He did not do so, which tells me
that He will not do so until we find the answer to this issue in Revelation 3:12
from Jesus’ own words: ”Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the
temple of My God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the
name of My God, and the name of the city of My God, which is new
Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from My God: and I will write upon
him My new name.” Later in Rev.22:4 this issue is again mentioned: “And
they shall see His face: and His name shall be in their foreheads.” Despite the many opportunities for God to have spoken
His “Name”, He did not do so and even in the prophecy of Rev.3 & 22, it is not
offered. Does this not tell us something?
----- Original Message -----
From:
SirDavid-Andrew.
To:
Richard Niemela
Sent:
Friday, January 01, 2010 11:16 PM
Subject:
My People Shall Know My Name!
Black Robed Devils in the Pulpits
The Creator's name is
Yah,
which means most vehement (The Source). {Strong 3050}
ABOUT FACE!
If you disagree with anything contained above, then it is up to you to prove
these thing wrong. If there be any errors, please, send me the proof and I
will be glad to make the corrections. However, most folks are incapable of
doing anything, but regurgitate vomit, being incapable of:
Calling Yah, the Creator (Yahavah), by the name of a Babylonian false deity
(idol), called GOD, is blasphemy. Selah! Selah! SELAH!
"As
for those of you, who abandon
Yah
(or Yahavah or Yah-havah, chief title of Yah, the Creator),
who forget My holy mountain, who lay the table for GOD
(Gâd or Gaud, deity of good luck or fortune, a deity of Babylon, the
LIGHT SIDE, so-called morning star or Lucifer, Statute of Liberty, Isis,
Semiramis),
who fill cups of mixed wine
{blood & wine}
for Meni
(The deity of destiny or fate, the DARK SIDE, evening star, Bohemian
Owl, Moloch, Tammuz, Jehovah or Yahweh, deity of perversion or ruin, and child
sacrifice.),
you, I shall sentence to the sword. All of you will stoop to be decapitated,
because you have done what I consider evil, you chose to do what displeases me."
-- Isaiah 65:11-12.
Sir David-Andrew.
Gentlemen,
Very good points, both of you.
Here are some other personal observations which might help us establish exactly
what IS the "name of the LORD", as referenced in the following verse (which is
obviously important to understand completely):
And he that blasphemeth the name of the LORD, he shall surely be put to death,
and
all the congregation shall certainly stone him: as well the stranger, as he that
is born in the land, when he blasphemeth the name
of
the
LORD,
shall be put to death.
Leviticus 24:16
<<<The
letter "J" for example, replaced the Old English "I," derived from the Paleo
Hebrew "Yod." (as evidenced in use in the 1611 Bibles.The new letter "J"
was used to replace the old English "I" derived from the Paleo Hebrew "Yod".
>>>
It's important to remember that, even though the letter "J" didn't exist until
then, that the pronunciation of the "I" with a special character on it was
pronounced with the "J" sound. In both Latvian [the world's most archaic
language, according to our OWN universities] and Korean, the letter "J" has
existed for 6,000 years. The word "Jew", with that "J" sound, has been
pronounced "jew" for a long time, and it's reasonable to believe that the
Israelites also had that sound (which I believe was actually Gaelic, not the jew
creation now called "hebrew").
I hope that you will take the following in the spirit in which it's intended.
Many of us, literally thousands of us, very closely studied and examined and
discussed in numerous forums, including Willie Martin, the following analysis by
Pastor Weiland:
http://fathersmanifesto.net/weiland.htm
It's a great study, no matter which side you come up on.
We could not believe that the jews had been able to mislead us so seriously
about "God" vs. "YHWH". But we concluded that they had, and all of us
began to use the terms "YHWH" and "Yahshua", as uncomfortable as that was.
The curious thing that happened is that all jews were ecstatic about our use of
those terms. Of course they never told us why--but we also know that the
Talmud requires jews to make every attempt to blot out THE name "Jesus" AND
"God", which is why no jew ever says "Jesus" and they all spell it "g-d", with a
lower case "g" and a - in place of the o.
If the jews were so happy about our use of these terms, it appeared to us that
this must be because we were doing THEIR job,so most of us went back to the much
more comfortable "Jesus" and "God".
I REALLY have no idea which is correct.
But I sure hope you will seriously consider these observations and maybe help us
sort it all out.
Sincerely,
----- Original Message -----
From:
Scott Vaught
Sent:
Sunday, December 27, 2009 6:56 AM
Subject:
My People Shall Know My Name!
Hi Richard.
We know the Torah is not a Jewish Book. The Books of the Law were
not given to the Jews, but to Moses, for the House of Israel. Moses was not a
Jew. However, virtually every English language bible is through Jewish,
Masoretic, or Hellenistic interpretation. This also applies to virtually all
other language bibles as well as bible references.
Knowing this as we do, arms us with caution to be mindful of their influences
and to prove all things. The OT writings say: "By thy Law I
know every false way." The antinomian teaching that the Law has
been done away, was the "deeds of the Nicholaitans" condemned in Revelations.
For if the Law is done away, there no longer exist the necessary witness of
truth for us to "know every false way." "Know ye not that ye are to judge the
Saints." By who's law are we to judge them to confirm they were of our
Father, if not our Father's Law.?" If you are my CO and give me a lawful
written Order, which I disobey: What will be the paramount evidence against me
at my Court-martial, if not your written order?
Our Father
has given us Written Orders in the form of His Laws and Commandments. If we keep
them they (the requirements) are fulfilled, not done away with. If we violate
them, they are the paramount evidence against us. This applies to the Saints.
Judge them by their deeds, if they obeyed the Laws and commandments given us
all, before we follow their lead or embrace their teachings.
Even the
laws of men have no penalty when kept. A Speed limit is 40 MPH, you
fulfill the requirement of the law by driving 40 MPH or under at all times. Was
the Law done away ? No! Just drive 70 MPH in this same posted 40MPH
Limit, and if a Cop is present, you will know that the law was not done away!
But rather, the penalty for its violation does not apply, as long as the Law is
obeyed, by fulfilling the requirement of the Law.
Concerning
the Name: This is my current understanding: Prior to the mid 1400's the Old
English language had only 22 letters in its Alphabet, the same as its Paleo
Hebrew origin. Four new letters were added to the English Alphabet:
Walla! The "Modern English" now has 26 letters! The letter "J" for
example, replaced the Old English "I," derived from the Paleo Hebrew "Yod."
(as evidenced in use in the 1611 Bibles.The new letter "J" was used to replace
the old English "I" derived from the Paleo Hebrew "Yod". As you have correctly
pointed out below in the word "Jahovah." The "W" was added to replace the
"double "U," used in Old English, which origin was the doubled letter "Vau" used
in Paleo Hebrew. As you can see, the Zionist have been very busy corrupting the
English language into modern babble. Its what they do best! What did we expect
from our enemies. His name is not: Yehovah or Jahovah, both are Zionist
corruptions of Yahweh, more correctly: "Yahuweh," (ee-yah-oo-wah). The
four vowels of the sacred tongue is the Father's Name! Hidden forever in plain
sight! We must walk in the light we are given. We cannot walk in another's
light, until they meet at the source. Have courage brother, both are from
the same source, our heavenly Father is the source of all Light. Blessings.
scott
----- Original Message -----
From:
J Richard Niemela
To:
Scott Vaught
Sent:
Wednesday, December 23, 2009 9:51 AM
Subject:
Re: App0005.rtf Ex 3:14-15
Scott..
In evaluating this word in Stongs No.3068, "Yehovah"
-- you can see, it has NO letter "W"...but states that it is "Jahovah",
which is labeled as the "Jewish"
national
name of God! . But also that it is sourced from a
primary root word, No.1961 in Strongs, which is "hayah"
meaning,
"to exist,
be, or become, come to pass," etc. There is
no letter "W" in Hebrew.
Nor can we find the Hebrew letters some are promoting as God's Name..YHWH...What
is your source for confirmation?
Since it is a referred to in Strong's as a
"Jewish"
name, note --- we do not follow Jewish terms and definitions -- Judaism is not a
source of Christianity nor do we adopt any of their doctrines, whims, mannerisms
etc...While Strongs Concordance used the KJV as its basis, recognize too, that
its Old Testament is the
Masoretic
Text or
MT,
and that these Masoretes were adamantly anti-Christian when they began compiling
the modern Hebrew language version around 500 A.D. working on
it until they gave the Catholic Pope a completed copy in 913 A.D....It has
remained our OT ever since...Comparisions between the Masoretic Text and the LXX
or Septuagint reveal that these clever talmudic Jews changed the words, verses,
omitted much of the original and were generally intent upon modifying the
original Bible text to accommodate Jewish views. Consequently, I suggest
always cross-referencing the OT with what is in the Lancelot Brenton version of
the Septuagint OT..
Why insist on using a Hebrew word for Our Lord...What's wrong with using our own
language to define what we mean..but since God has purposely kept His name
Secret, why seek it out? (See Judges 13:18) Using old Hebrew words
has no doctrinal value nor does it lend itself to the Christian Faith, as you
are reverting to Judaism in so doing!
Further, in Rev. 3:12 we can see that Jesus stated about the Overcomers, that He
would ". .
.write upon him the Name of My God......"and I will write upon him MY NEW NAME."
Perhaps for this reason, we are not to know or understand the name of our
Lord....Yet...
In another reference to the future for Israel, Consider God's instructions in
Isaiah 52 which addresses the vindication of Isarel of the delivery of Zion from
its present Captivity.. In verse 2, God instructs
"Shake
thyself from the dust: arise, and sit down, O,
Then, further along, in verse 6, we find God again referring to His Name:
inferring that WE DO NOT KNOW HIS NAME TODAY!
"Therefore My people shall know My Name: therefore they shall know in that day
that I am He that doth
speak; behold, It is I."
Why the persistence in seeking out a Name for God when you are not so instructed
or ordained?
Suggest that you read further along in Exodus, Ch.6:3:
"And I (God
Speaking)
appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the Name of GOD ALMIGHTY,
but by My name Jehovah was I not known to them."
Why not use
God Almighty
or the
Lord
in lieu of a Hebrew word that is noted as being a
Jewish
National Word?
JRN
----- Original Message -----
From:
Scott Vaught
Sent:
Tuesday, December 22, 2009 8:07 PM
Subject:
App0005.rtf Ex 3:14-15 Richard, Please scroll down
to page #2 for the Hebrew Text of Ex 3:14-15, Note Strong’s # 3068 in the second
line, third word from left. scott
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