The LIE in Webster's Dictionary
The fact that jews would go to so much trouble to
remove the verb "jew" from
the dictionary is truly revealing of their hideous agenda, but most American
dictionaries had already had the WRONG definition for the noun "jew" to
start with, for some time.
Webster's defines "jew" as: "one of the Tribe of Judah; hence, any
person
of the Hebrew people or anyone whose religion is Judaism".
This is so contradictory to the description of "jews" in the Holy Bible that
you have to question whether Webster himself was a jew.
The LEAST Webster should have done is to make the distinction between the
"jews" who were Judaeans ONLY by virtue of their being residents of Judaea
(but were Israelites by race), and "jews" who were descendants of Jehudi,
Ashkenaz, or Edom. Instead, his dictionary further confuses the issue by
defining "Judaean" as: "Of or pertaining to Judaea or the jews".
Of course it's technically correct, but it's incredibly misleading to leave
out the most important fact that Jesus recognized "jews" of His time to NOT
be the true descendants of Abraham:
(Joh 8:37) I know that ye are Abraham's seed;
but ye seek to kill me,
because my word has no entrance in you.
(Joh 8:38) I speak what I have seen with my Father, and ye then do what ye
have seen with your father.
(Joh 8:39) They answered and said to him, Abraham is our father. Jesus says
to them, If ye were Abraham's children, ye would do the works of Abraham;
(Joh 8:40) but now ye seek to kill me, a man who has spoken the truth to
you, which I have heard from God: this did not Abraham.
(Joh 8:41) Ye do the works of your father. They said therefore to him, We
are not born of fornication; we have one father, God.
(Joh 8:42) Jesus said to them, If God were your father ye would have loved
me, for I came forth from God and am come from him ; for neither am I come
of myself, but *he* has sent me.
(Joh 8:43) Why do ye not know my speech? Because ye cannot hear my word.
What Jesus is referring to here is the fact that the
"jews" He was
addressing then were descendants of Edom, whereas Israelites like He Himself
were descendants of Jacob, which made them two separate RACES. Jesus
described a moral conflict between the races which was just as profound then
as it is today, but most of the "jews" today (95-99% of them) aren't even
descendants of Abraham. As Willie pointed out, according to jewish
publications themselves, 95% + of today's "jews" are "Ashkenazi jews",
which
would make them descendants of Japeth rather than Shem [read: they aren't
Semites, Hebrews, descendants of Abraham, nor Israelites], which means that
Webster's definition of "jews" doesn't even apply to the vast majority of
American jews, much less the jews in the rest of the world [read: 95% + of
them are NOT Hebrews].
Webster further misleads us by failing to even define Khazars, even though
their empire covered a territory that was larger than the US at one time,
and even though MOST Ashkenzi jews are descendants of Khazars. Since they
didn't even convert to judaism until the 9th Century AD, it's not even clear
that they're even genetically linked at all to Japeth, though there must
have been some intermarriage with the "Ashkenazi jews" who lived
amongst them.
