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Whore I will not punish your daughters when they play the harlot, nor your brides when they commit adultery; for the men themselves go aside with harlots, and sacrifice with cult prostitutes, and a people without understanding shall come to ruin, Hosea 4:14 Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish aught from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you, Deuteronomy 4:2
While our modern publications claim that a "whore" is a "harlot", a "courtesan", a "concubine", a "prostitute", "unlawful sexual commerce", "lewdness", "lewd intercourse", and "promiscuous sexual intercourse" [with "promiscuous" defined as "mingled", "confused", "undistinguished", "common", and "indiscriminate"], SCRIPTURE tells us that a "whore" is NONE of these, but is instead: 1) a woman who marries under the false pretext of being a virgin, 2) a woman who has sex with someone other than her husband, and 3) a woman who has sex with a man of another race. Why can't Webster et. al. figure this out?! Webster's Collegiate DictionaryThis dictionary arbitrarily defines "whore" in such a way that it does not fit most of its Scriptural connotations:
How would we know from that definition that Scripture states that a whore is a woman who marries under the pretext of being a virgin when she's not, Israelites "whoring after" non-Israelites, and having sex with someone who's not your husband? Could any of these be called "promiscuous sexual intercourse"? Not if Webster's 1828 Dictionary definition of "promiscuous" is accurate. Webster's 1828 DictionaryPromiscuous PROMIS'CUOUS, a. [L.promiscuus; pro and misceo, to mix.] 1. Mingled; consisting of individuals united in a body or mass without order; confused; undistinguished; as a promiscuous crowd or mass. A wild where weeds and flow'rs promiscuous shoot. 2. Common; indiscriminate; not restricted to an individual; as promiscuous love or intercourse. There's nothing here that even hints at the Holy Bible definition of "whore", is there? How did Webster define whore in 1828, almost two centuries ago?:Whore WHORE, n. Hore. [G. The correct orthography is hore.] A harlot; a courtesan; a concubine; a prostitute. WHORE, v.i. [supra.] To have unlawful sexual commerce; to practice lewdness. WHORE, v.t. To corrupt by lewd intercourse. [Little used.]
Again, why is this earlier definition of "whore" also so far out of context with the Holy Bible? And what caused this same dictionary company to CHANGE their definition so drastically? Why is it so difficult for an ENGLISH DICTIONARY to define "whore"? What can possibly be wrong with developers of dictionaries consulting SCRIPTURE before they commit these erroneous, misleading, and mostly FALSE statements to PRINT? About the only definition in all of these Webster's dictionaries that appears even close is "prostitute"--until you examine it more closely! A Whore: LIES about Being a VirginIn the following verse, the damsel to be stoned to death is a woman who married with the pretext that she was a virgin and it was proven that she was not: Deuteronomy 22:21 Then they shall bring out the damsel to the door of her father's house, and the men of her city shall stone her with stones that she die: because she hath wrought folly in Israel, to play the whore in her father's house: so shalt thou put evil away from among you. This has nothing to do with her manner of dress or speech or attitude, her language, age, whether or not she's "promiscuous" as defined by Webster, and EVERYTHING to do with protecting the holy seed by prohibiting non-virgins from presenting themselves as virgin wives to Israelite men. Whoredom to Mix the Holy SeedGod had a particular problem with Israelites who "go a whoring" after the daughters of Molech, Ahab, Arabia, Egyptians, Assyrians, Moab, and gillul, indicating that our dictionary definitions now exclude the most important context of "whore", which is mixing the holy seed with non-Israelites, or "the peoples of the land":
A Harlot is not a WhoreJudah ordered Tamar to be "burnt" when he believed she was "with child by whoredom". But when he discovered she "hath played the harlot", and that he was the father, he forgave her. Did he forgive her because he was the father, or because she was NOT "with child by whoredom" but instead was with child by harlotry? In other words, is whoredom the death penalty, but harlotry is not? If so, what's the difference?
Was it a sin for Judah to hire a harlot? Apparently not, since he did and God didn't punish him for it. So Tamar "played the harlot" with Judah but was not a "whore". She was also not a virgin when Judah believed she was "with child by whoredom", because she was the widow of Er, Judah's firstborn son. So the "whoredom" which Judah believed caused her to be "with child" was simply sex with someone who was not her husband, which is why he ordered her to be put to death. A Concubine is not a WhoreJudges 19:2 shows that a concubine was not a whore until she left her husband and spent four months at her father's house, so where did they get the idea that a concubine was a whore? Judges 19:2 And his concubine played the whore against him, and went away from him unto her father's house to Bethlehem-judah, and was there four whole months.If a concubine IS a whore, then how can she "play the whore"? Priests are Not to Marry, Nor Let their Daughters Become, Whores:
Further Warnings Against Whoredom
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Modified Tuesday, January 18, 2011 Copyright @ 2007 by Fathers' Manifesto & Christian Party |